All Topics / Help Needed! / FHOG and marriage

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  • Profile photo of blogsblogs
    Participant
    @blogs
    Join Date: 2005
    Post Count: 418

    Hi all,

    Another question I could use some help with-I have a friend who had never owned a property till he got married but the wife had, so when they bought the property he guessed (correctly?) he wouldnt be elligable because of her prior ownership. They have since split up and he now wants to buy his own property-is there anyway he can still get the grant as he have never owned a property albeit the short period during which he had one with his wife?

    Profile photo of Kipper57Kipper57
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    @kipper57
    Join Date: 2006
    Post Count: 252

    It would be best to check with the state revenue department of the state he lives in. Just do a google search for state revenue or first home owners grant. On there web page they have quite a few scenarios or you can ring them directly their no is on the web site

    Wayne
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    Profile photo of TerrywTerryw
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    @terryw
    Join Date: 2001
    Post Count: 16,213

    I would think he would be eligible as he has never owned property. Was he ever on title?

    The fact that a past spouse had owned property shouldn’t matter.

    Terryw
    Discover Home Loans
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    Terryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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    Profile photo of HookhamCHookhamC
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    @hookhamc
    Join Date: 2007
    Post Count: 83

    Would not think so.

    [cigar][cigar][cigar]

    Profile photo of v8ghiav8ghia
    Member
    @v8ghia
    Join Date: 2005
    Post Count: 871

    Hi. If he owned the property or was a joint owner (ie had a share or interest in the property, by being on the title) it is a no no. It is a first home owner grant, which he would then not be. [strum]

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