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Property would probably be CGT exempt if it has been the main residence from the start and never used for income producing purposes or was it possible for the dad to claim the interest on the loan. eg. not used as an office or rooms rented out etc.
Another condition is that the land be under 2 hectares.
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You will have to read the agreement. Some state that commission will be payable if someone they introduced later buys the property etc.
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What about Bob Balanda solicitor. He has written a few books and is up on the gold coast somewhere
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You are doing all right – remember you are paying almost double the min repayment on your home loan.
If you can refinance those loans to a cheaper rate with less fees it would be good. And yes, pay IO only on the investments as these loans are deductible. Get rid of the non deductible first.
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Yes, if you are in VIC there are a lot of things you can do in transferring without stamp duty. In most other states it is more restricted. Your partner may also be able to borrow to buy your share and the money he pays you could be used to pay down the loan on your new home. He would be buying an investment property so the interest should be claimable too.
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Luke,
I would talking about the calculating of the CGT in that post.
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shumai wrote:I currently live in the inner west of melbourne in an old house (house 1) that is still owing ~$200K to which I can redraw ~$90K (extra payments). I'm looking to buy a new family home (house 2) in the eastern suburbs and have ~$130K in the offset account. House 1 in the west was bought in my name and we want to keep it as an investment property. Not sure what it's worth now but I bought it for around $350K Sorry for the newbie questions, I'm new to this: 1. Should I buy house 2 under a Trust structure or joint (partner and me)? I'm thinking under our names (50/50) since it will be a family home and Trusts have CGT implications (I think). 2. If I want to keep house 1 as an investment property for a while (15 years), how will the CGT be calculated given it was my family home from 2007-2012? Do you think it's worthwhile/possible to gift it to a family trust or hybrid trust since I expect to earn more than my partner. I'm guessing there might be stamp duty implications but I'm not sure if it's worthwhile in the long run. 3. Is it OK to redraw some of the money ($50K-$90K) from the loan back into the offset now prior to buying house 2? This will decrease the amount I need to borrow for house 2 and increase house 1's repayments. I'm thinking it's better to refinance and negative gear the investment property.Here are my answers.
1. Heaps of issues here such as:
– Land Tax
– Loss of CGT exemption (but the original place could still get this)
– Tax issues – would ATO see it as a scheme to save tax and deny it?
– little asset protection, especially in the early years.
– stamp duty
– re apply for loans and exiting existing loans2. CGT would be calculated on the value at the time you rent it. So sale price – value at time less costs = CG. Then apply 50% discount and then divide it between owners and add this figure to other income. Should be a max of 25% but much less probably
3. Its ok, but you cannot claim any extra interest incurred. Reborrowing or redrawing = new loan and the interest will only be deductible if the funds borrowed are used for investment purposes.
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luke86 wrote:2. You will calculate the CGT apportioning the period of time it was your PPOR. For example, if you kept the house for a further 10 years as an investment property after having it as your PPOR for 5 years, you will pay tax on 50% * 10/15 * the capital gain. The 50% is for the 50% CGT discount you get for holding the property for more than 1 year, and the 10/15 represents it being an investment property for 10 years out of the total 15 years of owning it.Hi Luke
I think this is incorrect. This would be the case if you moved into an IP but when moving out of your main residence and then changing it to an IP the cost base of the property would be set at the value at the time of moving out generally. see s 118-192 ITAA 1997.
Moving into an IP is covered at s.118-185 ITAA97.
I may be wrong though as I am not an accountant
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Brad,
That is a huge interest rate. Hope the loans are deductible.
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Peter456 wrote:Does centrelink know if you have money in your international account? People may transfer money overseas to keep getting payments or start getting payments as overseas banks may not share information with foreign governments.
Peter
Nope. The would not have access. But AUSTRAC records every transfer of money sent overseas and Centrelink, ATO etc would have access to this.
Taking cash up to $10k overseas, per person, is not required to be reported either.
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date of contract.
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Perhaps the trust could be continued by settling new property on it before it sells all of the real property.
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If you are an australian resident then you would have to pay tax on it – or declare the overseas income. You would generally get a credit for any tax paid over there so you wouldn't be taxed double.
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This is confusing "The properties were bought as a Unit trust which is owned by a Family Trust."
Is the onwer of the properties a trustee of the unit trust with the discretionary trust owning the units?
What would happen if this is the case is that the trustee would sell the property. If it is at a loss then the unit trust would have the loss. The discretionary trust would still own shares in a unit trust – but with no assets. A requirement for a trust to exist is for it to hold property, so a trust without any property (in general sense) could mean the trust fails.
Since you personally didn't incur the loss you would not be able to claim it or to offset it against future income. A way around this is for the trust, unit or discretionary, to make some income or you divert some income into the trust so that the loss can be offset. But since it is a capital loss you would generally need a capital again to offset it.
If the unit trust was able to continue then the loss could be carried forward without restriction.
Its a complex situation that you will need to get advice on.
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TO Interpretative Decision
ATO ID 2002/627
Income Tax
Income – Photovoltaic Rebate»
http://law.ato.gov.au/atolaw/view.htm?rank=find&criteria=AND~solar~basic~exact:::AND~rebate~basic~exact&target=JA&style=java&sdocid=AID/AID2002627/00001&recStart=1&PiT=99991231235958&Archived=false&recnum=1&tot=7&pn=ALL:::ALLIs a «rebate» received under the Commonwealth Photovoltaic «Rebate» Program, assessable income under section 6-5 of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997 (ITAA 1997)?
Decision
No. The «rebate» received under the Commonwealth Photovoltaic «Rebate» Program is not assessable income under section 6-5 of the ITAA 1997.
Facts
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But, see this
http://law.ato.gov.au/atolaw/view.htm?docid=TXD/TD200631/NAT/ATO/00001
TD 2006/31
Income tax: is a government rebate received by a rental property owner an assessable recoupment under subsection 20-20(3) of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997 , where the owner is not carrying on a property rental business and receives the rebate for the purchase of a depreciating asset (for example an energy saving appliance) for use in the rental propertyTerryw | Structuring Lawyers Pty Ltd / Loan Structuring Pty Ltd
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I think they would generally not be classed as income, unless you are connecting investment properties or doing it as a business.
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He's probably right. Go for an IO loan to access the equity – separate split of course.
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The company or LLC would then have to be acting as bare trustee for the SMSF. SMSF couldn't own the shares in a standard company acting in its own right could it would breach the rule against investing in a related party.
It would be complex acting as bare trustee too because of the different laws regarding trusts in Australia and the USA. You would need to see a specialist SMSF advisor.
Where is superman ?
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Would those companies be related parties? If so then your SMSF would be prohibited from acquiring the shares. There is an exemption if it wouldn't result in exceeding more than 5% of the funds total assets.
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