- psrpropertyParticipant@psrpropertyJoin Date: 2020Post Count: 3
Does residential address with the following:
(i) number as number/a, number/b, e.g. 1a or 1b; and,
(ii) number as number/number, e.g. 1/1, or 1/2
…means that the the owner does not own the land outright, and the land is shared with another accompanying owner?
i.e. can I assume the address is either duplex, semi-detached, or share a common wall?
I am filtering houses that stand on their own, i.e. no shared common wall or sublet, and to own the land in my residential real estate search.
This is important in case I want to knock down the house and rebuild a new one; so I would not have to ask for nearby owner’s approval.
Many thanks.TerrywParticipant@terrywJoin Date: 2001Post Count: 16,213
Nope for all of the above.
It probably means it is from a subdivision after the original street numbers were issued. Number 1 was split into 2 hence 1A and 1.psrpropertyParticipant@psrpropertyJoin Date: 2020Post Count: 3
Thank you Terry.
How do I find out if the property I buy has the land entitlement, either jointly or solely entitled?
What docs should I ask from the real estate agent?
Thanks.TerrywParticipant@terrywJoin Date: 2001Post Count: 16,213
I don’t know as I am not a property lawyer, but would think this would depend on the title and any rights such as easements..