I’ve noticed some ambiguity in some threads (and in the public) about whether or not you will still be eligible for the FHOG (for future use) if you have purchased an investment property. Please closely read the following two paragraphs if you want clarification on this point.
If you (and/or spouse/de facto) have owned a residential property before July 1st 2000 you are NOT eligible, regardless of whether you lived in it or not.
If you (and/or spouse/de facto) have owned and occupied a residential property after July 1st 2000 you are NOT eligible.
See how the above says “and occupied“
The point I am trying to make crystal clear, is that if you choose to purchase an investment property, and not occupy it, and you do not claim the FHOG, you can still claim it later when you buy a property you intend to occupy (within 12 months of settlement or occupation).
Liz
Mortgage Lender
You’re not alone Rob, that’s why I thought I’d post it.
I know a lot of brokers who don’t realize it either until you point out the wording to them. So it’s important we spread the word as I think people are being mis-advised.
Thanks for the link and paste from the Office of State Revenue page, that should be even clearer then what I have written.
Liz
Mortgage Lender
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