I'll show my ignorance here. Would there be any reason to have an offset account against an IO loan? My understanding is that an offset account against a PI loan means you'd be paying off more of the principle as the amount in the offset gets subtracted from the loan amount before the interest component is calculated? (That's not worded very well but hopefully makes sense to someone )
no offset account: interest 7% loan amount $500,000
interest = $35,000 pa $1346 per fortnight
if the repayment was $1500 per fortnight $1500 – $1346 ($154) would come off the principle.
with $100,000 in an offset account: interest 7% loan amount $500,000 so interest calculated is $500,000 minus the $100,000 in the offset ($400,000) interest = $28,000 pa $1077 per fortnight
if the repayment was $1500 per fortnight $1500 – $1077 ($423) would come off the principle.
— Mark
You would simply save interest each month – which means less to pay.
(unless you had a St G IO loan with offset and then you may find they will reduce the princple)
it doesn't sound to me like you are a developer and therefore you do not have remit GST on the sale. From what you have described it seems like an isolated transaction and not an 'enterprise' accordingly gst would be Neither charged or remitted to the ATO in the event of a sale.
You should competent accounting advice now and if necessary a private ruling.
I don't think this is correct. I am selling a new property right now and have looked at the GST Act and am under the impression that GST would apply whether registered or not. I haven't looked into it too closely as I haven't found a buyer yet.
Or just set it-up as a second IO split on the variable product. If it's set-up as a second facility you'll be able to easliy identify the deductable debt from the non-deductable.
Hi, currently going through the same process as well and for the lower interest rate I am leaning to this option over a LOC. Question though, where does the money sit while I am searching for my property (funds not used), if in a plain savings account then I am paying interest on the loan without actually using the funds yet, my thoughts to overcome this is to set up an offset account for this split and so not paying interest until the time comes that I need to use the funds for deposit. Some have suggested this may still have some problems with compliance from ATO, any further thoughts on this?
TLP
My view is that the funds are no longer borrowed once they are in the offset account. Therefore is is a potentially dangerous way to do things. I would rather see the funds put back into the loan and then reborrowed when needed.
Now I am confused If the answer is c – One for all 20 IP's then how does one account with a particular bank attribute an offset amount to a range of IP loans of different amounts with different lenders?
PJ
I think you misunderstand how offsets work. One offset account only works against one loan. So the money in offset A will only offset loan 1.
I understand an offset account works to minimise the repayments towards the loan it is attached to up to the value of the IP loan.
If I had 20 IP's with a number of different loan amounts with different banks and credit societies, How many offset accounts would I have to minimise the interest payments to those loans?
A – One for each IP? B – One only for my LOC? C – Only one for all 20 IP's?
There is no point attaching an offset account to my PPOR as it is essentially paid off already. This is where all my equity is sitting.
If the answer is A – One for each, then that means I have 20 offset accounts
If the answer is B – One only for my LOC, then that means only one account servicing my LOC.
If the answer is c – One for all 20 IP's then how does one account with a particular bank attribute an offset amount to a range of IP loans of different amounts with different lenders?
PJ
Just think that you can only use your money once. So how many accounts you need would depend on how much cash you have. if you have 5 x $500,000 loans and $500,000 cash you could have 5 offset accounts with $100,000 in each or one offset with $500,000. Whichever way you use it will result in the same interest savings and if it is the same person that owns all houses it won't really matter which way you go with.
By the way, Terryw, though it is true the purchaser pays the GST and the vendor remits it to the ATO the practicalities seem to be the opposite. For example, if a block of land is valued by agents at $300k to achieve a sale and the price set by other land sales in the area (land sold as sub-divisions from PPOR land) then your 'new' land will need to be sold at $330k. Why would a residential purchaser pay an extra $30k? They wouldn't. So the GST has done on of two things to the sale of land, either increased property prices by 10% across the board or developers are taking a 10% 'haircut' across the board. I might be completely off the planet with this logic, what do you think?
That sounds right. the GST would have to be included in the market price which someone would pay and so in reality it is the seller that actually pays for it. although technically it is the buyer.
Hey guys, I've found a block I want to put an option on. They are asking $350k – $380k for it. What is the best way to go about asking for the option? How much should I offer to for the option etc? I want the block but funds are tired up with other properties at present. Is this the best way to go about it? Advice please.
Its up to you, but you have to be realistic.
If you offer a $1 option fee with a term of 6 months – there is no incentive for them.
If you affer $3,000 with a term of 6 months and a strike price of $350,000 they will be thinking they can keep the $3k if you don't purchase, but will be down more than this in interest paid on the loan.
If you offer $10,000 then it is more of an incentive to them, but a bigger risk to you as if you don't purchase you have lost a fair bit.
I would think it won't become your main residence until you move in. So any growth in value during this time may be subject to CGT – but how much do you expect it to grow in 4 months?
Doesn't sound too good to me. For starters, you will be up for CGT and stamp duty to put them on title.
You will also complicate things to no end. What if one of them goes bankrupt or there is a family law claim? What happens at death ( and I am not talking about rebirth or heaven – but challenges to the will, succession etc)
There is also the risk of you being liable for the full debt if they don't pay and the large decrease in loan serviceability – 1 person will be assessed on the complete debt, but only allowed 1/4 of the rent.
I've purchased 2 cars on credit cards. Firstly, you don't want to pay the fee – naturally. So don't mention it to the sales person. Go in there and negotiate. Tell them you can pay in full straight away. When it comes down to paying just hand over the card. They will protest and say you need to pay the fee and you say, no that is ok I will come back next week when I get the cash. They won't want to lose a sale so will give in and say you can have it today with no fee.
I purchased a $20k car on one card and then transferred it to a new one with a 2.99% balance transfer rate for the live of the transfer.
You could ask for director's guarantees, but whether they agree or not is a different matter. It would be expected of a small company, but not larger ones.
I would suggest you look at selling the IP. Do the sums. You may have to pay CGT, but this will be small and releasing equity would allow you to pay down your PPOR loan and saving you heaps of non deductible interest.
You can then get back on track quickly and then reborrow some money on the PPOR with a LOC and purchase a new investment. Net result is lower PPOR loan and higher IP loan saving you $$$ in tax each year.
Alternatively you could talk to your tax advisor and set up a LOC and then use this to pay the interest on your IP loan and use all the rent from your IP to pay off your credit cards. You need to set this up properly to work.